God and His Son

[dean198]

The difference in the Greek rests in the presence of absence of two Greek letters. This is how those two letters appeared in early manuscripts:



The following two letters appear in all manuscripts of I Timothy 3:16, and these two placed together as follows, form a word which means "which" or "who" or in some contexts "he":



Put all four together, and you get "theos", the Greek word for "God":

Hello Paidion. I do believe you've inadvertently misunderstood the argument. Words like Jesus and God were contracted in the Greek texts (at first this was done with divine names, but later with other names like David), so that the four letter theos ('God') was written as the two letter ths. But the theta (the 'th') only differs from the omicron by having the bar through the middle, and so the difference between 'God' and 'who' isn't between four letters and two, but between two two-letter words, one with a bar through the middle, one without. I think it was the Alexandrinus which was the subject of much controversy (pardon the pun) as to whether the bar was in the original or added later. Either way, the bar has since disappeared.

[Paidion]

You are right, Dean. I knew that and had often looked at it in my trancript of papyrus 66. When I made that post, I think I had a senior moment.

[Arj]

So does this mean should i pray to jesus for everything or to the father?