Why the atonement?

[anochria]

The word "just" occurs neither in the Hebrew or in the Greek Septuagint. The addition of the word by the NIV is the result of an interpretation of the passage.

Agreed. From an NIV-sympathetic view, one could say that the NIV is attempting to smooth over a hyperbole (ie, God isn't saying that he never said anything about burnt offerings and sacrifices, just that that wasn't his central message to his people)

So, Paidion, let's put it another way- how can God say he didn't in any sense give them commands about burnt offerings and sacrifices, when in fact that's what we do find him doing in the Pentateuch?

I hope to read your article. Thanks for the link. I'll try and respond when I get a chance.

[Paidion]

Thanks for your response, Anochria.

So, Paidion, let's put it another way- how can God say he didn't in any sense give them commands about burnt offerings and sacrifices, when in fact that's what we do find him doing in the Pentateuch?

I have addressed this question in Chapter 3 of The Supreme Sacrifice of Jesus Christ (found by clicking the link I provided)