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Romans 11:11&12

Posted: Mon Jun 05, 2006 6:01 pm
by _Glenn
I'm looking for some help on Romans 11:11&12. I don't understand the conclusion of verse 12. I have a good handle on the rest of chapter 11.

11) I say then, have they stumbled that they should fall? Certainly not! But through their trespass, to provoke them to jealousy, salvation has come to the Gentiles.
12) Now if their trespass is riches for the world, and their failure riches for the Gentiles, how much more their fullness.


Here are my questions.

- Should the word fall in vs 11 be translated fail? That would parallel failure in vs 12. Not that it would really make a difference.
- Fullness (of the Jews) parallels fullness of the Gentiles in 11:25. How are we to best understand "fullness" in light of both passages?

Thanks
Glenn

Posted: Mon Jun 05, 2006 6:55 pm
by _Allyn
I know that many here could answer your question (at least we can give our view) but I am going to refrain because I would like Steve to articulate his answer according to how he sees it.

Posted: Mon Jun 05, 2006 7:17 pm
by _djeaton
Here is a page that goes into quite a bit of detail on these two verses.
D.

Thanks djeaton

Posted: Mon Jun 05, 2006 8:33 pm
by _Glenn
You're right. It is a quality resource.

Thanks
Glenn