Romans 10:19

[Guest]

I am discussing eschatology with a guy on another message board and he is interpreting Romans 10:19 in a manner I haven't heard before

But I say, Did not Israel know? First Moses saith, I will provoke you to jealousy by them that are no people, and by a foolish nation I will anger you.

He's saying two different groups must be in view b/c it would be a contradiction to call one group no people (~ethnos) and a nation (ethnos).

But isn't this clearly quoting Dueteronomy 32:21 and speaking of the gentiles as 'not a people' & yet a 'group of people'? Isn't it just poetic language to state the same thing twice

~i'll make you envious by people who aren't even a people
~i'll make you angry by people who don't have a clue