1 Corinthians 10 v 29b - confused

[Ian]

"for why should my liberty be determined by another man`s scruples?" (RSV)

He seems to be saying, *no, my liberty should not be determined by another man`s scruples". But that would contradict what he wrote earlier about refraining from a conduct that might offend others with a weaker conscience (thereby allowing another man`s scruples to determine his liberty). I`m needing light shed on this one. Thanks.

[dizerner]

He's just saying on his own time or in private he doesn't still have to abide by the other guy's scruples, even if he will in front of him not to offend him. That's how I take it.

[Ian]

sounds entirely plausible Dizerner. Thanks

[Paidion]

Yes, the context bears out Dizerner's explanation:

If one of the unbelievers invites you to dinner and you are disposed to go, eat whatever is set before you without raising any question on the ground of conscience. (But if some one says to you, "This has been offered in sacrifice," then out of consideration for the man who informed you, and for conscience’ sake — I mean his conscience, not yours — do not eat it.) For why should my liberty be determined by another man’s scruples? (1 Cor 10:27-29 RSV)

[Ian]

The penny`s dropped. The "for" refers to the sentence before the bracket not the one in the bracket. Alles klar Kommisar