The Narrow Path Ministries

Scripture: Titus 2:11-14

All of chapter two deals with the responsibilities and instruction of believers. The "you" in verse 1 is the old and young people mentioned in verses 2-9. It is said of them that "God" is their "Savior" in verse 10. This letter was written to Titus, but the content speaks to Christian believers as it instructs us. I continue on in verse 11 "For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation to all men..."

Through "grace" believers are "justified" (Titus 3:7) for that is the result of salvific grace. Likewise in (Ephesians 2:8-9) grace results in salvation and is never mentioned in the sense of potentially saving, as if the grace of God may save or it may not save. The function of saving grace is the justification of the sinner and it is God alone who imputes His grace. As Isaiah said, "He has clothed me with garments of salvation, He has covered me with the robe of righteousness" (Isaiah 61:10). Just as faith is accompanied with works, grace is accompanied with salvation and righteousness. So this grace which justifies has appeared. But for what purpose? Simple, to bring salvation. And who is it that God was bringing His grace which justifies? Who was God bringing salvation to? All men. And who are these "all men"? Who and what does the content of this letter address? By simply following the pronouns in the book of Titus, it reveals who the "all men" are. Is it all people who ever lived? No! Even if you lost all the verses up until verse 10 and only had verses 11 until the end of the book, who the "all men" are is very clear. Reading the text, verse 11 doesn't end but continues until verse 14. The grace of God which justifies brings salvation, and this "salvation" actually leads those to whom it came to... to be instructed to deny ungodliness, worldly desires, to live sensibly, righteously, godly, and to look for the blessed hope and appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior. The entire context is linked together and to separate it as if the "all men" means "all of humanity who ever lived" is a mistake. The "all men" are the same people as the "us" as shown in verses 12 and 14. The ungodly are not looking for the blessed hope and appearing of our great God and Savior. I can assure you of that. The text goes onto say that Jesus gave Himself for "us". Even the purpose of Christ's death is spelled out for "us" here. The scripture says, the purpose of Christ's death was to redeem "us" and to purify "us" as His own people and possession.

This understanding of Titus 2:11-14 reveals that salvation is all of God, not of us. It was God who caused His grace to appear, it was God who brings salvation, and this salvation instructs us to live godly. It is Christ who gave Himself for us, for the purpose of redemption, and it is God alone who purifies His own possession and people. Therefore, verses 11-14 is speaking of the work of God.

However there are other interpretations placed upon this text and I would like to look at them. As follows, if the "all men" are said, "to be all of humanity" then there are two alternative interpretations that I know of. First, there is the universalism interpretation. God has brought salvation for all men or all of humanity. Salvation is understood as something God fully does, it is all His work, and if God brings salvation to all men this would result in all men or all of humanity being saved. This is known as a universal salvation. However other scriptures show that such an idea is wrong and not all humanity is saved. So this cannot be understood as all men universally being saved. All men saved versus not all men saved is not a mystery but a contradiction. The Universalists would disagree with me at this point.

The second interpretation understands the "all men" as being "all of humanity" just like the Universalist. However they deny universalism, so something has to give and it does! Verse 11 is understood as a "mere offering of salvation." The problem that I see with this understanding is as follows, even if the Bible spoke of a mere offering of salvation elsewhere in scripture... it does not in this specific text.

Those who interpret this verse to mean "all of humanity" usually believe that "Christ's death was for all of humanity". If Christ died for all, then all would become saved... unless you believe His death hadn't really paid the fine of all people's sins, but that He only potentially died for sins. There is a difference between the two, either Jesus died for a specific person/persons sins or He died for no person/persons sins specifically. This speaks directly of the atonement of Christ and one's understanding of this is very important.

What are your thoughts about this? Do you agree, disagree, is there more that can be added?

First, there is the universalism interpretation. God has brought salvation for all men or all of humanity. Salvation is understood as something God fully does, it is all His work, and if God brings salvation to all men this would result in all men or all of humanity being saved. This is known as a universal salvation. However other scriptures show that such an idea is wrong and not all humanity is saved. So this cannot be understood as all men universally being saved.

There are probably some who believe in universal salvation, and who take the position you describe. But none of the ones I know believe that "all humanity is saved", and I am acquainted with several hundred. While all of them believe that every one will eventually be with the Lord, none of them believe it happens automatically. Rather, those who do not submit to the authority of Christ here on earth, will need to be corrected and probably instructed by God or His mature children until they repent and submit to Christ, just as you and I have already done.

Paidion,

The end result (not the timing of it all) is what I think they share in. Whether its here on earth or after death, the universal salvation idea applies. Are you saying there are Universalists who believe people end up in hell? If Christ died for all and actually paid the fine of sin for all and bore the wrath of the Father for all, and someone ends up in hell, isn't this a double payment? I wonder what the universalist believes concerning this?

ABout my post was there anything besides the universal salvation that you found right or in error?

I was reading Calvin's commentary on this verse after I had written it and think this is why he viewed the "all men" as "all kinds of men" which seems to best fit the text. These words in the original are not locked into a literal 'all men' or all of humanity.

Since there is no 'but or 'however' or any word that would seek to separate the 'all men' and the 'us' in verses 11-12, I am forced by the text to read it as is.


Does anyone have any thoughts for or against? Do you feel this is the proper understanding of the text? Why or why not?

Do I believe that there are universalists who believe some people go to hell? I am one of them (though I don't call myself a "universalist" for the reason that they have the reputation of believing that everyone automatically goes to heaven). Perhaps over 99% of people go to hell. George MacDonald, also a believer in universal salvation, also believed that people went to hell to be corrected. Thomas Tablott, university philosophy professor and author of The Inescapable Love of God, believed that people will be corrected in hell. In fact ALL of the well known writers I know who hold to universal salvation, believe that hell is the place of correction, that God in His love has provided it for those who refuse to submit to Him in this life, that God will do His best for every person, and will not give up until all shall voluntarily submit to the authority of Christ.

What specifically do you agree with or disagree with my understanding of the text? From the text would you come the same or similar results?

Scripture: Titus 2:11-14

All of chapter two deals with the responsibilities and instruction of believers. The "you" in verse 1 is the old and young people mentioned in verses 2-9. It is said of them that "God" is their "Savior" in verse 10. This letter was written to Titus, but the content speaks to Christian believers as it instructs us. I continue on in verse 11 "For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation to all men..."

Through "grace" believers are "justified" (Titus 3:7) for that is the result of salvific grace.

All of this is true, of course. But how is it to be interpreted? Take for example the phrase "God our Saviour". Does "God our Saviour" refer to Jesus? Or does it refer to the Father? I suggest it refers to the Father, even though Jesus is also clearly called "Saviour" in Paul's writings. Also, Yahweh is called "Saviour" by Isaiah:

Isaiah 43:3 for I am the Yahweh your God, the holy one of Israel, your saviour; I gave Egypt for your ransom, Ethiopia and Seba in your place.
Isaiah 43:11 I, even I, am Yahweh, and besides me there is no saviour.

Now if we think Yahweh refers to the Father alone, we have a problem. For we Christians also believe that Jesus is our Saviour. However, I have come to believe that both the Father and the Son share the name "Yahweh". The Son was that one whom Abraham addressed as "Yahweh", who stayed behind while the other two messengers went ahead to Sodom and Gomorrah. Justin Martyr pointed this out to the Jews with whom he was discussing. He made reference to Genesis 19:24 where two Yahwehs are mentioned in one verse, the Yahweh in heaven who is bringing destruction on the cities, and the Yahweh on earth through whom He wrought the destruction. Justin claimed the one of earth was the Son of God:

Then the LORD rained on Sodom and Gomorrah brimstone and fire from Yahweh out of heaven.

The grace of God described in Titus 2:11-14 is God's enabling grace which saves us from sin by training us to renounce impiety and worldly passions and to live righteous lives:

For the grace of God has appeared for the salvation of all men, training us to renounce irreligion and worldly passions, and to live sober, upright, and godly lives in this world, awaiting our blessed hope, the appearing of the glory of our great God and our savior Jesus Christ, who gave himself for us to redeem us from all iniquity and to purify for himself a people of his own who are zealous for good deeds.

This is quite different from the "grace" which the fundamentalists proclaim as "God's unmerited favour" towards us, where nothing is required of us except to receive it.

Likewise in (Ephesians 2:8-9) grace results in salvation and is never mentioned in the sense of potentially saving, as if the grace of God may save or it may not save. The function of saving grace is the justification of the sinner and it is God alone who imputes His grace.

"Imputes His grace"? What to you mean by that? "Imputes" means "counted" or "reckoned". Or do you mean that He sort of thrusts His grace upon us while we do nothing except express a willingness to receive it?
Do we not need to coöperate with the grace of God? We cannot get anywhere by our own efforts. But neither will God do it all alone. Paul wrote:

Working together with Him, then, we entreat you not to accept the grace of God in vain. 2 Corinthians 6:1

As Isaiah said, "He has clothed me with garments of salvation, He has covered me with the robe of righteousness" (Isaiah 61:10).

Are you implying that Isaiah was speaking of God covering him with His righteousness, and not enabling Isaiah to be actually righteous? From the beginning of Genesis and all through the Bible, God showed that actual righteousness is what He wants from people. God did not accept Cain and his offering, not because Cain's offering was vegetables instead of meat, but because Cain did not offer himself to God so that God could enable him to become actually righteous. When Cain got angry that God didn't accept him and his offering, God said, "If you do well, will you not be accepted? and if you do not do well, sin is couching at the door; its desire is for you, but you must master it." (Gen. 4:7) It was all about "doing well" that is, behaving righteously and mastering sin -- and so throughout the entire Bible. As I see it, Isaiah was saying that the "robe or righteousness" was a work of God combined with the man's willingness to receive that robe. If we had nothing to do with it, why would it be written, "Strive to show yourself approved to God, a workman that need not be ashamed, cutting straight the expression of truth"? (2 Tim. 2:15) This same Isaiah wrote: "Wash yourselves; make yourselves clean; remove the evil of your doings from before my eyes; cease to do evil. Learn to do good; seek justice, correct oppression; defend the fatherless, plead for the widow. "Come now, let us reason together, says the LORD: though your sins are like scarlet, they shall be as white as snow; though they are red like crimson, they shall become like wool. If you are willing and obedient, you shall eat the good of the land; but if you refuse and rebel, you shall be devoured by the sword; for the mouth of the LORD has spoken." (Isaiah 1:17-20) These passages sound as if an effort is required for righteousness.

The apostle John did not teach a righteousness from God that is thrust upon us, but a righteousness which we actually DO:

Little children, let no one deceive you. He who does right is righteous, as He is righteous. (1 John 3:7)

So I do not find your statement This understanding of Titus 2:11-14 reveals that salvation is all of God, not of us. harmonizes with Titus 2:11-14, but is quite the opposite:

For the grace of God has appeared for the salvation of all men, training us to renounce irreligion and worldly passions, and to live sober, upright, and godly lives in this world, awaiting our blessed hope, the appearing of the glory of our great God and our Savior Jesus Christ, who gave himself for us to redeem us from all iniquity and to purify for himself a people of his own who are zealous for good deeds.


1. How can this salvation be "none of us" if we are being TRAINED to renounce impiety and to live upright, Godly lives in this world? Is that not in part our doing?
2. How can this salvation be "none of us" if Christ gave Himself to redeem us from all iniquity? If we are redeemed from iniquity, we will no longer indulge in it! Is that not in part our doing?
3. How can this salvation be "none of us" if we are purified in such a way that we are zealous for good deeds? Is that not in part our doing?