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Re: How should this verse be translated?

Posted: Sun Mar 15, 2009 10:27 pm
by Paidion
No, Michelle. I'm not holding back, nor do I think the verse has been misused.

It's just that I couldn't make sense of the following translation as a number of versions have it:
Because (there is) one bread, we (who are) many are one body. For we all partake of the one bread.
I assumed that the "one bread" referred to the single loaf used for communion in the early church. If that were the case, having a single loaf at communion could not be the reason that we who are many are one body.

I would never have guessed that anyone interpreted the "one bread" otherwise, if it had not been for Homer's statement that he regarded the "one bread" as a reference to Christ. Of course, if Paul meant it to refer to Christ, then that translation makes perfect sense.

Because I couldn't make sense of the common translation as quoted above, I suggested two other alternative translations, wondering which one of the three made the most sense to others.

Re: How should this verse be translated?

Posted: Sun Mar 15, 2009 11:26 pm
by Michelle
Thanks for answering, Paidion. Again, I'm sorry for thinking that you were holding something back.