John 2:4

[jaydam]

Why does Jesus appear to verbally deny his mother's request, but then seems to do it right away?

The only thing that I can think of is that Jesus is thinking of and referencing the "new wine" he is to usher in when his hour has come. Thus, when his mother says they need wine, Jesus is saying that he can't give them any yet, referring to the spiritual wine. However, Jesus goes on to give them earthly wine.

In this way, John has Jesus speaking in double meanings like he does later in the chapter regarding the temple being raised after three days. Also, it accounts for the symbology of the wine he can give being made using ritual purification tools.

My thought is just a stab at it. Please enlighten me on what you guys think of the incident.

[TK]

My take:

1) Jesus' initial inclination was that God was not telling him to intervene.

2) Mary then made a show of faith by telling the servants to do whatever Jesus told them to do. Obviously she expected He could do something.

3) The Father tells Jesus to go for it.

4) He hears and obeys.

Or, it could simply have been a case of Jesus honoring his mother.

[jaydam]

So why does John include the words regarding "his hour"?

It seems this phrase would be intended to point us to the idea that in Jesus' mind he is thinking of something related to his death which was when his hour did come.

From what I can see, his hour not yet being at hand other times in John (2:4; 7:30; 8:20; 13:1) had no bearing on Jesus' hesitation in other cases to reveal himself for who he was, but directly referenced his death.

[MMathis]

Or, it could simply have been a case of Jesus honoring his mother.

I agree. If mom asks and you can do it, who wouldn't. Maybe it is to give us the first example of ask/receive. (I know there were others, I meant with Jesus in person)

[morbo3000]

In my small group study tonight someone brought up Matthew 15:21-28 where Jesus initially refused to heal the daughter of a Gentile woman.

In both texts we are left we have a bit of a problem.

Jesus changed his mind.

Our belief that Jesus was God raises the question "How can God change his mind?" Was he wrong with his first answer? How could he be wrong? Can people change God's mind? Can't God see everything? Doesn't he already know what's best?

There are lots of explanations we can try to come up with to reconcile this. By my reading, in both stories, it really seems that he didn't want to do it, and gave in because he was being pestered. Not that he was making a point about "pounding on the doors," or whatever. Or that they had more faith. It seems like he was annoyed, and gave in.

Jesus changed his mind.

And that's hard to grok.