The Narrow Path Ministries

Emmet, Great info! Thanks! Your research would seem to suggest that it is certainly possible for there to be Aramaic equivalents to the Greek words used. That might support the idea that John did not insert commentary into the text, but tried to give us an accurate account of the conversation. peace...

Hi - I'm interested in some responses on a question posed to me by my eighteen year old son. Basically, here is my son's question: If God commanded humankind to be plenish the earth, and if Cain took a sister for his wife, as many suspect, then it seems the only way to fulfill that particular will o...

[quote="Michelle"] 4. One guy, who says he has studied the epistles more than the gospels, noted that John is usually pretty precise in his language and therefore believes that there is something implied by the change there. He also said that it's impossible for us to know if there was a widespread ...

Hi Feather, My understanding from what i've heard many times is that Jesus spoke in Aramaic and that it's likely that John used two different words to highlight the fact that Jesus was trying to get Peter to understand the difference between "agope" (Godly sacrificial) love and human love"phileo" w...

Sorry Michelle .. I was away for a while.

Thanks for posting my question on the other site. If you get a response I would appreciate it!

peace,

dane

Thanks for the replies. However, they really didn't address my main question. Let me just simplify it ... A) The orginal conversation took place in Aramaic or Greek? B? If Greek, then go no farther, my query is satisfied. B) If Aramaic, then what word did Jesus use for "agape," and what word did He ...

Hello, I am hoping that someone might have an answer to my question! In John 21:15-17 Jesus asked Peter if he "loved" him. As many know the word "love" that Jesus used is "agape" in the Greek. Peter responded with the Greek word "Phileo," also translated love. My questions: Did the original conversa...