The Narrow Path Ministries

Yea, but it's indirect not direct support, as I previously said is the case. Yes, that's true. It is indirect (in your opinion) since there is no scripture that links psalm 110 with the trinity. You seem to always want to make things direct support and only disprove them in that sense. How can anyt...

I guess you're missing my point. In debate, you can't make a logical argument that also works against your own position. I didn't miss your point. That's a given, isn't it? If you could show me where you think I've done that, I will try to clarify it. But realize too, I never claimed the words "my ...

I'm saying it fits the Trinity paradigm not proves it. Otherwise your argument works just as well against Biblical monotheism—God is called lord and Abigail is called lord: checkmate Christians. Checkmate? Is this a game to you? 1. You say that Psalm 110:1 supports the trinity because David (prophe...

dizerner wrote:Needless to say it supports rather than contradicts the Trinity. For us there is one Lord, and David calls him my Lord.

Abigail called David "my lord." Sarah also called Abraham "my lord" - "my adoni." Aren't you seeing that your argument is not sound?

The Trinity is never proved by a single proof-text but taking everything together in conjunction. Yes, I realize the trinity doctrine needs to be assembled, but I believe this verse should not be included among those to be considered. Even if it is referring to Christ's ascension, it still does not...

Hi Homer, I believe the word you're referring to is Adonai. I have read that the word in Psalm 110:1 is not Adonai, but adoni. I don't believe adoni was used as a substitute for YHWH, but instead seems to refer to a human lord or king, but not to God. Here's just one place talks about that: http://c...

The point is that this verse should not be used as a proof text for the Trinity in the Old Testament. The phrase "the Lord said to my Lord", is not saying that Yahweh spoke to Yahweh as many people presume. The Hebrew behind the first LORD is YHWH (God), and the Hebrew for the second Lord is adoni (...

If trinitarianism allows us to bend the use of the pronoun "him" to refer to "three" persons, will it allow that we use the pronouns "they" or "them" to refer to only "one" of "them"? If not, why not?

We are "one" body right? Would you say "the church are holy"? Paul said we use spiritual language for spiritual things. Christ and the Father are one... even if it's metaphorical, you still can't say that is only ever strictly grammatical and mathematical, it seems to me. Why can't Three be One? Ye...

Who revealed it to Peter? Why did Jesus speak in parables? I just can't agree with that. Being "born again" breaks both grammar and mathematics. Trinitarianism requires that we say "He are three" and "they is one" and that when we think and speak of one God we are to understand that it doesn't real...