jriccitelli wrote:‘Proposition three is beginning to be easier to let go of when I think of the fact that most scriptures in its defense are either in the context of parable, hyperbole, or extreme symbolism’ (Rich pg.1)
That is far from true, and even the scriptures that are hyperbole or symbolic
represent a reality, none of which can be let go.
I don't think what I said is
far from true. Which verses can you find in support of proposition three that are not found in one of those categories?
These are the only verses I can think of that can defend proposition three (that some individuals will be separated from God forever):
Matthew 25:41,
Matthew 25:46 - These verses are in the context of a parable. Parables by definition are not supposed to be taken literally. Even if these verses were to be taken literally (which we don't usually do with parables), the Greek words are debatable and do not rule out a universalist interpretation as far as I know.
Revelation 14:9-11,
Revelation 20:13-15,
Revelation 21:8 - These verses are in the context of an apocalyptic drama of extreme symbolism. There are many things in this book that we do not take literally, so I'm naturally skeptical of doing the same with these passages. Only the first set of verses (14:9-11) specifically state that there is no hope of salvation for those concerned. But if I remember correctly, JR, you do not hold to the traditional ECT view. If these verses are supposed to convey a "reality which cannot be let go", as you say, then why do you feel at liberty to not take literally where it says, "and these shall be tormented forever with no rest day or night"? If you do feel at liberty to reject that idea about hell, why must I accept that there's no postmortem hope for those in the lake of fire?
2 Thessalonians 1:9 - This is the only time the word for everlasting (aionios) is used in the context of postmortem judgment other than when Jesus used it in The parable of the sheep and goats. This is the only time Paul spoke of destruction (olethros) for those who do not obey God or the gospel of Jesus which seems to be referring to postmortem destruction. Paul very well might be using hyperbole here. Why, you ask?
Here Paul uses the same Greek word for destruction and it is in the context of someone's salvation. God destroyed the man's flesh (through Satan) in order to bring about the man's ultimate salvation. Why must we necessarily take 2 Thessalonians 1:9 in a different sense?
Another thing about this entire passage is that I've heard some pretty good arguments that this judgment and destruction is in reference to AD70 and God's judging of the Jewish system and age, which would have made a significant impact on the evil Jews in Thessalonica who were troubling the believers Paul was writing to (as in Acts 17). I don't think it's impossible that 2 Thessalonians 1-2 is using similar language that Jesus used in
Matthew 24:27-31, 34. I'm in no way a convinced full preterist, but I'm open to the possibility in this context. I should say that I'm agnostic on the topic due to my lack of information. My last intense studies on the Olivet Discourse (which were at Steve's school) gave me more respect for full preterism, since it appears that when you look at the parallel account in Luke, it seems to give a strong case for full preterism. Steve, of course, did not teach full preterism, but I recall at the time thinking it had a strong case. Even since, I have read certain passages and can see how it could relate to full preterism. I in no way want to become dogmatic about it (like so many full preterists have), so I've somewhat put it on the backburner for now until I have more time to study the topic. But as of right now, I'm open to the possibility that 2 Thessalonians 1-2 are to be understood in that sense.
Propositions one and two appear to be overwhelming themes of Paul and the Scriptures as a whole (Rich pg.1)
jriccitelli wrote:This statement is not true, if we want to think UR is a theme in scripture that is one thing, but the overwhelming theme is far from that.
I think you have to re-read propositions one and two in the original post. Proposition one, in essence, states that God desires all to be saved because he is not a respecter of persons (and since that is true, He will do all He can to prepare those He loves for the purpose of reconciliation). Do you not think that is an overwhelming theme of the Bible? Ever since Genesis 12, God had all nations in mind, that all families of the earth would be blessed with salvation. The entire Old Testament is the anticipation of the fulfillment of that promise. The New Testament clearly teaches that God wills for all to be saved, and that it is one of His chiefest desires. Proposition one, it appears, is non-negotiable in my mind (unless you're a Calvinist of course!).
Proposition two is not as popular unless you lean toward UR. Proposition two, simply stated, is that God will successfully triumph in His redemptive plan by securing the salvation of all He sincerely wills to be saved. This puts the emphasis on God's will and His ability to get what He wants. The Scriptures teach that God is sovereign, and that His purposes will not fail. I think Job 42:2 is a clear indication of this:
No purpose can be withheld from God. If we believe God loves all people and desires for them to be saved, then we can deduce that He will do everything He can in His power so that His purpose of the salvation of all finally occurs. The only obstacle to this idea are two things:
1) Some Human beings, as free moral agents, will never choose to follow God of their own free will without being coerced. God will not coerce them, so He will grant them their wish to be separate from Him forever.
2) At some point, if point one is true, the sinner will disintegrate into non-existence, or will perpetually continue to reject God for all eternity.
This, however, implies that God will have to inevitably give up on the sinner at some point. God must become fatigued of the sinner's rejection of Himself and decide to give up on giving the sinner any more chances for salvation. If God is a jealous God of love, one whose Love never fails (
1 Corinthians 13:8), I find it difficult to think that God will give up on sinners at some point even though the possibility still remains that they may turn to Him in repentance. God is the sustainer of life, so even in hell, He is the one sustaining the sinner in the first place. If anyone is giving up in the wrestling match between the sinner and God, God must be the one to give up (if proposition two is false). This, I perceive, proves God a failure to extend His love, which is supposed to have no boundaries (
Ephesians 3:18-19). This is not even taking into account that Jesus' blood has purchased the entire world (
1 John 2:2). It would seem strange that God would give up on individuals for whom Christ died and secured through His death, and this would seem to point that Jesus loses most of what He paid for (and that the devil actually succeeded in making the cross of little effect!). However, we know that the cross is said to have completely defeated the devil, sin, and their "works" (
1 John 3:8).
So, in conclusion, I don't think it's a stretch to say that The Father and Jesus will succeed in their mission, if they are sincerely determined to make it a reality. (Even if they must wait millions of years before sinners finally surrender to this loving Father who will not give up). God does whatever He pleases (Psalm 115:3), so if He is pleased to sustain sinners in hell until they surrender, would that be against the whole theme of Scripture and the revealed character of God?
jriccitelli wrote:Think of each major biblical story from the beginning;
Adam sins, God pronounces death, and a curse… is this a theme meaning everyone will be saved?
Noah’s flood, the Lord saw that the wickedness of man was great on the earth…
The Tower of Babel, they weren’t scattered because they were seeking God…
Sodom and Gomorrah… is this a theme meaning everyone will be saved?
Judgment on Egypt, the Passover, Pharaoh’s hardness an his army drowned in the sea…
The Law given with statutes of punishment and death for disobedience, not to mention the references to choice and it having been given as a test and a means of life or death…
They all die in the desert, is this a theme meaning everyone will be saved?
The carrying of the Ark, having it go before them, specific rules with death penalties all mandates precluding their entering into the Promised Land… is this theme meaning everyone will be saved?
The consistent theme to fear God, even to those who were not Israelites as in Josh.4:24… is this a theme meaning everyone will be saved?
The command to totally destroy their enemies, and the acts themselves, and the consequences they experienced for having ‘not’ completely destroying the enemies, death… is this a theme meaning everyone will be saved?
The Angel of the Lord (Jesus?) rebukes them for having not destroyed the cities completely (Judges 1:27-2:5)… is this a theme meaning everyone will be saved?
After destroying the cities, Israel now is commanded to fight and destroy thousands in battle including the Ammonites the Philistines and when Israel themselves begin to become corrupt, God allows them to be destroyed in battle, from Judges 8 on Israel continues to experience corruption and the consequences from God – death… is this a theme meaning everyone will be saved?
You are applying typologies from the Old Testament to insinuate that not all will be saved. The Old Testament doesn't speak at all about the afterlife, and I'm not sure we can eliminate the possibility of the salvation of all just because God judged certain individuals in the Old Testament. It appears that you have difficulty understanding that the universal reconciliation position believes that God will be just and will punish sin in hell. You seem to think that if everyone gets saved, then somehow people get off without their just due. That is not implied by the Scriptures nor the evangelical universalist. Many of those people who died under the judgment of God in the Old Testament may have, for all we know, been those to whom Christ preached in hopes of delivering (
1 Peter 4:5-6)! The question is whether God will get what He wants. If He wants all to be saved, is it crazy to think that He may have created a scenario in which inevitably, at some point, even in the context of free will, that all will eventually find themselves submitted to Christ the King who purchased them?
jriccitelli wrote:I could go on but I was thinking that Paidions 0000000.1 percent hypothesis leaves out the Law of thermodynamics, besides a million other variables…
You will have to elaborate on this, I'm not following you. I think Paidion's explanation makes logical sense in the context of free will. The only way it wouldn't work, as I mentioned before, is if God decides to give up on the sinner. But if He sincerely desires for the sinner to be redeemed (proposition one, which we all accept), what makes us think that He will give up?
jriccitelli wrote:And I would think Lake of Fire couldn’t be ‘more’ clear, if something is thrown into a bucket of fire it might crawl out, but a lake, I think the intention is that you cant get out… not to mention it is fire.
Our God is a consuming fire, so when we are in the presence of God (fire), we are not consumed (just like the bush at Sinai), but we are refined. Why must the imagery of fire necessitate destruction if we experience the same fire and are not destroyed? but, in fact, we actually are destroyed in a sense. Our old man, our sinful tendencies become destroyed as we submit to the fiery refining process of sanctification.
jriccitelli wrote:Satan only manufactures the lie, people decide to love the lie more than the truth, and if it weren’t Satan it would be something else. God is looking for those who love truth, love His righteousness, and fear Him, this seems to be a reoccurring theme in scripture.
This has no bearing on whether God desires to save all, or whether He intends to succeed in that mission.