Did Paul Rule Out Universalism?

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Homer
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Re: Did Paul Rule Out Universalism?

Post by Homer » Sun Jul 04, 2010 10:27 pm

Hi Mike,

Good to hear from you again, and I also hope things are going well with you.

You wrote:
Regarding the verses you quoted, I think most who hold to UR would agree that Jesus indicates that not everyone will enter the kingdom in the future -- at the time indicated by Jesus. He specifies He is referring to a specific day or time. Continuing the verses you quoted, and adding a couple more:

Mat 7:19 "Every tree that does not bear good fruit is cut down and thrown into the fire.
Mat 7:20 "So then, you will know them by their fruits.
Mat 7:21 "Not everyone who says to Me, 'Lord, Lord,' will enter the kingdom of heaven, but he who does the will of My Father who is in heaven will enter.
Mat 7:22 "Many will say to Me on that day, 'Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in Your name, and in Your name cast out demons, and in Your name perform many miracles?'
Mat 7:23 "And then I will declare to them, 'I never knew you; DEPART FROM ME, YOU WHO PRACTICE LAWLESSNESS.'

These verses may be understood to be referring to a specific day or time when we are judged whether or not we have done the will of the Father. Only those whose righteousness has exceeded that of the Pharisees are allowed to enter on that day. The question remains, is that the "Final Answer"
I was hoping to show Steve a passage where Jesus' thought seemed to parallel Paul's warnings in 1 Corinthians and Galatians that I had referenced early in the thread. Matthew used the future indicative for Jesus' "will (not) enter" the Kingdom of Heaven. Steve was interested in what might be a difference between entering vs inheriting the kingdom and how this might impact universalism.

The verb tenses pertinent in the Matthew passsage are as follows:

Mat 7:19 "Every tree that does not bear (present participle) good fruit is cut down and thrown into the fire.
Mat 7:20 "So then, you will know them by their fruits.
Mat 7:21 "Not everyone who says (present participle) to Me, 'Lord, Lord,' will enter (future indicative) the kingdom of heaven, but he who does (present participle) the will of My Father who is in heaven will enter.
Mat 7:22 "Many will say (future indicative) to Me on that day, 'Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in Your name, and in Your name cast out demons, and in Your name perform many miracles?'
Mat 7:23 "And then I will declare (future indicative) to them, 'I never knew you; DEPART (present imperative) FROM ME, YOU WHO PRACTICE (present participle*) LAWLESSNESS.'

Present participles refer to that which is done continuously or repeatedly. The future indicative refers to a simple occurance in the future, a certainty. And the present imperative refers to a command to repeated or continuous action. I make no claim to any expertise in Greek, but I'm showing what my study of the matter has revealed. Whether my point is proven or not is up to the rest of you Bereans to determine!

*The present participle may be used, for emphasis, to describe that which is yet future.

God bess you! Homer.

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RICHinCHRIST
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Re: Did Paul Rule Out Universalism?

Post by RICHinCHRIST » Fri Jul 09, 2010 1:11 pm

I think Jesus ruled it out too.



Jesus speaks of some people never being forgiven; not in this age, nor in the age to come.

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Todd
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Re: Did Paul Rule Out Universalism?

Post by Todd » Fri Jul 09, 2010 4:34 pm

RICHinCHRIST wrote:I think Jesus ruled it out too.



Jesus speaks of some people never being forgiven; not in this age, nor in the age to come.
In this passage, "this age" would refer to the Old Convenant age; "the age to come" would refer to the age of the New Covenant. This does not speak of what may happen in the resurrection.

Also, if one is not forgiven it means he must suffer the consequences. The penalty for this sin is not defined. I think it is most likely a temporal punishment; we should not assume un-ending torment is the penalty for unforgiven sins.

Luke 12:47-48
47 And that servant who knew his master's will, and did not prepare himself or do according to his will, shall be beaten with many stripes. 48 But he who did not know, yet committed things deserving of stripes, shall be beaten with few. For everyone to whom much is given, from him much will be required; and to whom much has been committed, of him they will ask the more.

Whether the punishment is "many stripes" or "few" it is still limited.

Todd

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RICHinCHRIST
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Re: Did Paul Rule Out Universalism?

Post by RICHinCHRIST » Fri Jul 09, 2010 11:39 pm

Todd wrote:
RICHinCHRIST wrote:I think Jesus ruled it out too.



Jesus speaks of some people never being forgiven; not in this age, nor in the age to come.
In this passage, "this age" would refer to the Old Convenant age; "the age to come" would refer to the age of the New Covenant. This does not speak of what may happen in the resurrection.
Hi Todd,

Let me begin by saying I would love if universalism is the true understanding of Hell. I believe that God has a heart for universalism, but I don't think it's practically possible according to the Scriptures.

I've recently looked into the uses of "age" in the NT in my conversations with full-preterists. I agree that certain passages refer to the Old Covenant and New Covenant age... however, some uses of the word "age" are very difficult to reconcile with one of those interpretations... for a few examples, see: Matt. 13:39, 40, 49; 28:20, Eph 2:7, 3:21.
Todd wrote: Also, if one is not forgiven it means he must suffer the consequences. The penalty for this sin is not defined. I think it is most likely a temporal punishment; we should not assume un-ending torment is the penalty for unforgiven sins.

Luke 12:47-48
47 And that servant who knew his master's will, and did not prepare himself or do according to his will, shall be beaten with many stripes. 48 But he who did not know, yet committed things deserving of stripes, shall be beaten with few. For everyone to whom much is given, from him much will be required; and to whom much has been committed, of him they will ask the more.

Whether the punishment is "many stripes" or "few" it is still limited.

Todd
I agree with your point on this passage. I don't think the eternal torment view makes sense of all the scriptures on the topic. However, if someone is not forgiven, then that doesn't necessarily mean they are tormented forever.. but it also doesn't say at the end.. "but in the resurrection, they will be forgiven". In fact, there is no passage that clearly gives a universalist position any strong strong exegetical ground except for 1 Tim. 4:10 -- it could have been so easy for God to make this doctrine very clear.. it would only take a few words on a few passages.. The others used to defende universalism are just too broad and I think they are stretched out beyond comfort.

They could be annihilated and still be unforgiven.

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steve
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Re: Did Paul Rule Out Universalism?

Post by steve » Sat Jul 10, 2010 12:31 am

Hi Rich,

I think Todd's point may be that some may be restored without having been "forgiven"—meaning, they will have to bear their penalty instead of being forgiven. A criminal who serves his time in prison was not forgiven by the courts for his crime. If he had been forgiven, there would have been no penalty exacted. However, even without having received forgiveness, the criminal who has served his time is released and restored to society. That is, death (or annihilation) is not the only alternative to forgiveness—temporary, proportionate punishment is a third option. Once the penalty has been served, either annihilation or restoration would be alternative post-penalty options. Of the two, however, annihilation would seem the less just, since it would be a further penalty exacted after the man had "done his time."

I have to say that I don't find the issue to be a simple one.

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Homer
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Re: Did Paul Rule Out Universalism?

Post by Homer » Sat Jul 10, 2010 9:07 am

Hi Steve,

You wrote:
That is, death (or annihilation) is not the only alternative to forgiveness—temporary, proportionate punishment is a third option. Once the penalty has been served, either annihilation or restoration would be alternative post-penalty options. Of the two, however, annihilation would seem the less just, since it would be a further penalty exacted after the man had "done his time."
How is this any different than the Catholic doctrine of purgatory? It would seem to be a distinction without a difference. Although slim, the biblical support for purgatory appears at least as strong.

God bless, Homer

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Todd
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Re: Did Paul Rule Out Universalism?

Post by Todd » Sat Jul 10, 2010 10:58 am

RICHinCHRIST wrote:They could be annihilated and still be unforgiven.
The idea that any unforgiven sin sends someone to hell or annihilation does not make sense to me. If someone commits a crime he is either pardoned (forgiven) or he pays the penalty (pays a fine, goes to jail, does public service, etc). I believe God deals with sin the same way.

Gal 6:7-8
7 Be not deceived ; God is not mocked : for whatsoever a man soweth , that shall he also reap . 8 For he that soweth to his flesh shall of the flesh reap corruption; but he that soweth to the Spirit shall of the Spirit reap life everlasting.

The penalty for sin is corruption. The reward for faith is a spiritually blessed life.

Gal 5:19-24
19 Now the works of the flesh are manifest, which are these; Adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lasciviousness, 20 Idolatry, witchcraft, hatred, variance, emulations, wrath, strife, seditions, heresies, 21 Envyings, murders, drunkenness, revellings, and such like: of the which I tell you before , as I have also told you in time past , that they which do such things shall not inherit the kingdom of God. 22 But the fruit of the Spirit is love, joy, peace, longsuffering, gentleness, goodness, faith, 23 Meekness, temperance: against such there is no law. 24 And they that are Christ's have crucified the flesh with the affections and lusts.

Here we have two lifestyles contrasted; the first is a corrupted life full of shame and misery, the second is a joyful life full of spiritual blessings. A life filled with sin and self-gratification yields corruption; a life of faith yields joy and peace in the Lord. This is the message of the Gospel of Peace.

What happens in the resurrection is a different matter. In the resurrection Christ has the power and authority to subject all things unto himself (1 Cor 15:28, Phil 2:9-11, Eph 1:9-10, Rom 8:18-23). As I understand it, in the resurrection there is restoration for all. Chirst did not win a partial victory on the cross - His victory was complete.

Acts 3:20-21
20 And he shall send Jesus Christ, which before was preached unto you: 21 Whom the heaven must receive until the times of restitution of all things, which God hath spoken by the mouth of all his holy prophets since the world began.

Todd

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steve
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Re: Did Paul Rule Out Universalism?

Post by steve » Sat Jul 10, 2010 12:34 pm

Homer,

You wrote:
How is this any different than the Catholic doctrine of purgatory? It would seem to be a distinction without a difference. Although slim, the biblical support for purgatory appears at least as strong.
It really doesn't sound very different from the doctrine of purgatory. The degree of similarity must apparently appear to be very close, in the eyes of some, since the book "Four Views on Hell" mistakenly included the Catholic doctrine of purgatory as one of the views, where universal reconciliation should have been included. Perhaps it was considerations such as those of the universalists (like Origen) that led the Roman Catholics to create the doctrine of purgatory (while condemning Origen!), as it seems almost to serve the same ends.

"Almost," I say. Not quite. The doctrine of purgatory still allows that many (perhaps most) people may end up in eternal torment. Some, it is argued, at the time of their death, are not "bad enough" to ever deserve that fate, but also are not "good enough" to deserve heaven. For them, there is said to be purgatory. I am not sure whether purgatory is supposed to be a place that brings sinners to repentance, or if it is simply a place where they pay-off their debt to God. I have never heard the Catholic explanation of this point.

I do not hold to universalism, as I have often said. However, as is evident in my posts, I find it to be an attractive and plausible interpretation of the ambiguous data that the Bible provides concerning God's "Final Solution" to the problem of sin. Of the various options, it really is a good solution—seemingly the one most consistent with the revealed character of God, and the only one that really permits the Lamb who was slain to receive the full reward of His sufferings.

I can understand the evangelical objection that, if a man were to pay off his sin-debt in hell, and then be "restored to society" in the new earth, then he would not be there by grace, like the rest of us. In response to this suggestion, several thoughts arise in my mind (none of them proving anything):

1. (Entirely hypothetically) If a sinner, having been through hell, has paid off his sin-debt, this does not mean that he now "deserves" to have eternal life. Eternal life is still the gracious and undeserved gift of God in Christ. It simply would mean that the "legal" obstruction to his receiving that life has had to be removed "the hard way." Once that obstruction has been dispensed with, then God has every right either to welcome him into the renewed earth, or, alternatively, to "pull his plug." If God chose the latter, and the man were made to pass out of conscious existence after paying this penalty, this would not necessarily be a case of depriving him of something he had "earned," but simply of the withholding of a grace that some receive, but which no one deserves.

2. When we use the term "paying the debt," we may be picturing the wrong concept. In the parable of the unforgiving servant, the man had been forgiven, but refused to forgive another man. It seems clear that, though his debt had been cancelled, it was on the implicit condition that he go out and extend similar mercy in his dealings with others. This is clear from the fact that the king was able to cast him into prison on no other offense than that he failed to forgive another man. In this latter state, we are told that he was "delivered to the torturers, until he would pay what was owed." But what was owed? His original debt had been cancelled. All that he owed his master was that he forgive his fellow servants.

Thus, the man was to remain incarcerated until he would come to the place of forgiveness. In other words, "paying what he owed" did not consist in a certain amount of suffering or penalty being paid-off, but by acquiring a softness of heart which he earlier had refused to adopt. If he would have reached this place of forgiveness (I think it is implied), he would have then been no longer held by the torturers. His debt (or, more properly, his "obligation") would then be fulfulled. If we envisaged a similar arrangement for hell (in fact, many people think that this parable is about hell, and others that it is about purgatory), then the man who dies with an unpaid sin-debt, has only this obligation: to come to a place of repentance which he had resisted throughout his earthly life. Hell is where he goes until this obligation is met. Upon reaching this place in his heart, his case would then be no different from that of any of us who are now saved (the same experience of repentance was the only way that we got free of our sin-debt), and his restoration to God would be the same as ours—with only the exception that he had resisted it longer and surrendered later than we did. The grace involved in his salvation would be no less than the grace involved in ours.

3. When Paul contrasts "grace" and "debt" (e.g., in Romans 4), he is concerned that we do not have occasion to "boast" of having taken care of our sin-debt by our own works or merits. Many Christians have come to Christ only after great losses, sufferings and painful divine dealings. For some, these dealings have amounted to a lesser "hell" on earth, without which (it seems) they would not have been broken and brought to repentance. We do not, in their cases, argue that their sufferings have served to purchase their salvation, thus nullifying grace. We recognize, perhaps, that the "price they paid" in coming to Christ through difficulty was necessary to the outcome. Any fear that those who were brought to Christ through more severe dealings than others would then be prone to "boast" of having accomplished their own salvation through works would be unfounded. The more one suffers before coming to repentance, the more there is for them to be ashamed of, because that prolonged and difficult process corresponds to the degree of hardness of their hearts, which, through such means, God had to overcome. The evidence of such recalcitrance would be no matter of boasting, but of shame.

These thoughts are presented only because they occur to me. Obviously, my thoughts have been on the questions of the biblical teaching on hell for a while now, and I am attempting to look at the scriptural possibilities from every angle. I am not saying that any of these suggestions amount to anything like proof of one position over another. I have not received them from reading universalists, and am not sure that they would approve these concepts. They are just thoughts that come to me through thinking.

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Re: Did Paul Rule Out Universalism?

Post by RickC » Thu Jul 15, 2010 8:11 pm

(I'm choosing Steve's reply to Rich to get back in on the conversation) -
steve wrote:Hi Rich,

I think Todd's point may be that some may be restored without having been "forgiven"—meaning, they will have to bear their penalty instead of being forgiven. A criminal who serves his time in prison was not forgiven by the courts for his crime. If he had been forgiven, there would have been no penalty exacted. However, even without having received forgiveness, the criminal who has served his time is released and restored to society. That is, death (or annihilation) is not the only alternative to forgiveness—temporary, proportionate punishment is a third option. Once the penalty has been served, either annihilation or restoration would be alternative post-penalty options. Of the two, however, annihilation would seem the less just, since it would be a further penalty exacted after the man had "done his time."

I have to say that I don't find the issue to be a simple one.
(And I noted Steve's reply to Homer).

Taking a different angle here - I'm posting from Luke for context.

Luke 12 (nkjv, bold and underline mine for emphasis)
35 “Let your waist be girded and your lamps burning; 36 and you yourselves be like men who wait for their master, when he will return from the wedding, that when he comes and knocks they may open to him immediately. 37 Blessed are those servants whom the master, when he comes, will find watching. Assuredly, I say to you that he will gird himself and have them sit down to eat, and will come and serve them. 38 And if he should come in the second watch, or come in the third watch, and find them so, blessed are those servants. 39 But know this, that if the master of the house had known what hour the thief would come, he would have watched and not allowed his house to be broken into. 40 Therefore you also be ready, for the Son of Man is coming at an hour you do not expect.”
41 Then Peter said to Him, “Lord, do You speak this parable only to us, or to all people?”
42 And the Lord said, “Who then is that faithful and wise steward, whom his master will make ruler over his household, to give them their portion of food in due season? 43 Blessed is that servant whom his master will find so doing when he comes.
44 Truly, I say to you that he will make him ruler over all that he has. 45 But if that servant says in his heart, ‘My master is delaying his coming,’ and begins to beat the male and female servants, and to eat and drink and be drunk, 46 the master of that servant will come on a day when he is not looking for him, and at an hour when he is not aware, and will cut him in two and appoint him his portion with the unbelievers. 47 And that servant who knew his master’s will, and did not prepare himself or do according to his will, shall be beaten with many stripes. 48 But he who did not know, yet committed things deserving of stripes, shall be beaten with few. For everyone to whom much is given, from him much will be required; and to whom much has been committed, of him they will ask the more.


First, just to note parallel passages @ Matt 24:42-51 and Mark 13:33-37.

v. 40 - "the Son of Man is coming"
This could put the setting of the need for faithful endurance and service within the framework of post-resurrection ascension to the Great War (70AD) and beyond.

Why I don't think Jesus was addressing afterlife judgment -
The "servants" Jesus addressed were the Jews (per Jesus' answer to Peter's question, though Jesus didn't actually directly answer, but just kept talking).

Four classes of servants are talked about: 1) the faithful, vs. 42-44; 2) those who become wicked and unbelieving, vs. 45-46; 3) those who knew God's will but didn't do it, v. 47; 4) those who did not know God's will, who yet sinned, v.48.

The faithful and wicked servants are contrasted and rewarded for their deeds; either being made a ruler over the household or killed. The others who sinned willingly or unknowingly are never the less held responsible and rewarded in accordance with the severity of their sins (which wouldn't have been anything unusual or hard for Jews to understand, per the Law).

What would a faithful servant been given charge of?
Galatians 6:10 (njkv)
Therefore, as we have opportunity, let us do good to all, especially to those who are of the household of faith.


Ephesians 2:19 (nkjv)
Now, therefore, you are no longer strangers and foreigners, but fellow citizens with the saints and members of the household of God,


1 Timothy 3:15 (nkjv)
but if I am delayed, I write so that you may know how you ought to conduct yourself in the house of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth.


The faithful were to take charge of house of God - the Church. Throughout Acts we saw this happening, as the Apostles sought to bring in all of the Remnant of God's Israel, to "rebuild the tabernacle of David" among the Jews (Acts 15:16), which also now included those from among the Gentiles.
==================

So what am I getting at here?
Basically, that I don't think Jesus was talking about anything beyond the immediate Jewish context. That is, he was addressing Jews - whom he referenced as "servants". He wasn't speaking to levels of judgment in hell, nor about anything in the the afterlife. Key phrase: "the Son of Man is coming".

How much sense this post makes...(we'll see, we'll see).... ;)
Thanks! :)

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