This post is in response to Homer’s post in another thread where he stated
I will attempt to lay out Homer’s argument as a logical argument with premises and conclusion.[The word “aiōnios”] is translated as “everlasting” or “eternal” in the vast majority of cases [where it is used as an adjective for the life of the saved in the hereafter], and can have no other meaning…”
Premises:
1.The Greek word “aiōnios” is used an adjective for the life of the saved in the hereafter.
2. In the vast majority of the cases where it is so used, it has been translated as “eternal” or “everlasting”
3. The life of the saved in the hereafter is eternal
Conclusion:
Therefore “aiōnios”, in the passages where it is used as an adjective for the life of the saved in the hereafter, it can have no meaning other than “eternal” or “everlasting.”
Is the argument valid? That is, does the conclusion follow logically from the premises? All the premises are true. Is the conclusion therefore necessarily true?
Suppose “aiōnios” where used “for the life of the saved in the hereafter” means “going from age to age”. Is there any reason to think that “ending” or “non-ending” is part of the meaning of the word? I think not. In Christ’s parable, the goats go into age-to-age punishment, and the sheep into age-to-age life. That which goes from age to age, may come to an end or it may not. There is nothing inherent in the meaning of the word “aiōnios” that indicates which it is.
The Greek word “aiōnios” is the adjectival form of the word “aiōn”. Interestingly enough, this word has come into our English language from the Greek as “aeon”. In most dictionaries you will find that the meaning of the word is given as “an indefinitely long period of time, an age”, not “eternity”. So, if the noun means “age”, why should the adjective mean “eternal”? But, of course, this is no proof that “aiōnios” does not mean “eternal.” For it might just happen that in Greek, the adjective has a different meaning from the noun from which it is derived. But that isn’t the case. Abbott-Smith’s Greek lexicon not only renders “aiōn” as “a space of time, an age”, but also “aiōnios” as “age-long”.
Some say that in Greek the word “aiōnios” is used for “eternal” because there is no other Greek word available for the concept. Not so. The true Greek word for “eternal” is “aidios.” It is used in the New Testament to refer to God’s “eternal power and deity.”
Let’s examine some passages which show that “eternal” or “for ever” is definitely ōan incorrect translation of “aiōnios”:
Let’s start with the Old Testament. In Hebrew, the word corresponding to “aiōnios” is “olam”. The Septuagint (a translation from Hebrew to Greek several hundred years before Christ) translates “olam” as “aiōnios” or “aiōnos” (which is also translated as “forever” in English Bibles). Here is a quote from Isaiah 32:14-15, Revised Standard Version:
For the palace will be forsaken, the populous city deserted; the hill and the watchtower will become dens for ever, a joy of wild asses, a pasture of flocks; until the Spirit is poured upon us from on high, and the wilderness becomes a fruitful field, and the fruitful field is deemed a forest.
If the area will be deserted, a useless wilderness for ever, how can there be an “until”?
Will there be a time after “forever”, when the Spirit is poured out and the wilderness becomes a fruitful field?
I would like to suggest the word “permanent” as a translation of “aiōnios” or “aiōnios” .
Having a permanent driver’s licence does not imply that it cannot be revoked, just that the driver will probably have it a lot longer than a temporary one. Having a permanent hair-do does not imply that it will always stay that way, but it will certainly last longer than other hair styles. Try the word “permanently” in the passage above, and it makes perfect sense.
Of course, “permanent” may not always be the best translation. For example:
Romans 16:25 Now to the One who is able to empower you in keeping with my gospel and the heralding of Jesus Christ, in accordance with the revelation of the secret which was kept hidden for age-long times...
The above is my personal translation. I tried to render it as literally as possible from the Greek. But what happens if we translate “aiōnios” as “eternal”?Let’s consider the ASV:
Now to him that is able to establish you according to my gospel and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery which hath been kept in silence through times eternal...
Does it make sense? What would the expression “through times eternal” mean? You can never get “through” eternity! Besides, how can there be “eternal times”?
Some according to their concept of time, have said that eternity is “outside of time”. If that is true, the phrase “eternal times” is self-contradictory and thus meaningless.
But worse! Consider some other translations!
King James Version:
Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began…
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Now that’s quite a difference, isn’t it? There’s quite a difference between “through times eternal” and “since the world began”! Nothing eternal about “since the world began”! So has the KJV “scaled down “aiōnios” to mean something less than endless eternity? Obviously so!
Douay Version:
Now to him that is able to establish you, according to my gospel and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery which was kept secret from eternity...
From eternity! How do you keep a secret from eternity? Where do you begin? Eternity has no beginning or end.
The RSV and the NRSV translate the phrase as “for long ages”. That’s an excellent translation. It’s the current way to express the literal “for age-long times”. The NIV has “for long ages past”. That’s good, too.
So many of these translators have used “aiōnios” to mean something less that “endless eternity”. So obviously, even in the same passage, there’s no agreement among Greek experts as whether or not to translate the word as “eternal.”
So how did the word “aiōnios” come to be translated as “eternal”
Jerome used both speculum and aeternus in the Latin Vulgate in translating “aiōnios” . 1200 years later, the King James translators simply followed the Vulgate in translating these words. Whenever the Vulgate used aeternus, the KJV translated as, “eternal”, and whenever the Vulgate said speculum, the KJV translated as “world.” So instead of translating Jesus’ words as “I will be with you to the end of the age”, the KJV translates “to the end of the world.”
One more example:
How long is Jesus going to reign in the Kingdom? We all know the words from the Hallelujah chorus from the Messiah, “And He shall reign for ever and ever.”
Probably this has been taken from Rev 11:15
Then the seventh angel blew his trumpet, and there were loud voices in heaven, saying, "The kingdom of the world has become the kingdom of our Lord and of his Christ, and he shall reign for ever and ever." RSV
But I Cor 15:25,28 shows us that He will not reign forever, but, “...He must reign until He has put all his enemies under his feet...When all things are subjected to Him, then the Son Himself will also be subjected to Him who put all things under Him, that God may be all in all.”
Is this a contradiction? Only if one accepts the mistranslation of “eis tous aiōnas tōn aiōnōn” as meaning “for ever and ever.” It literally means “into the ages of the ages”.
In today’s English, we could render it, “for ages and ages”. Jesus will reign for ages, until all His enemies are under His feet, until all things are reconciled to Him, and then His reign (not His Kingdom) will end. The Kingdom will be turned over to the Father that God may be all in all. God cannot be in all, until all cease their rebellion and submit to Him.
The exact same phrase, is used in Rev 20, which states that the Beast and the False Prophet “will be tested day and night for ages and ages”. By the way, the Greek word “basanizō” comes from a root word that means a stone used for testing metals. That’s why I translated it as “tested” in this verse. I think that “tormented” or “tortured” is a mistranslation and implies vengeance rather than correction. As GMD said, “Hell is on our side.” God uses Gehenna remedially. God doesn’t torture anyone to correct them.... especially not for all eternity.
In conclusion, the Greek word has the meanings “permanent” and “going from age to age”. Whether or not the object or condition which it describes comes to an end, is not inherent in the meaning of the word.
Therefore it is misleading to translate the word “age-long” which seems to imply an end to the object or condition. It is equally misleading to translate the word “eternal” which implies that the object or condition is endless. Rather it ought to be translated by some English word such as “permanent” or “age-to-age” which implies neither ending or endless to the object of condition which it describes.
. I beg your patience; I intend to fully respond to your post. For now I leave you some food for thought regarding the Hebrew concept of the two ages.
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