Open Theism and the Scriptures

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Homer
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Open Theism and the Scriptures

Post by Homer » Mon May 14, 2018 11:04 pm

I know there are scriptures cited in support of Calvinism, "arminianism" (whatever that is), and open theism. Some of the scriptures seem to me to be very difficult to explain for open theism advocates. For example:

John 6:39 (NASB)
39. This is the will of Him who sent Me, that of all that He has given Me I lose nothing, but raise it up on the last day.


Scholars seem to agree that Jesus spoke Aramaic. John gives us the meaning of Jesus' words in Greek. In the Greek of the above verse John used the "perfect indicative active" to inform us that Jesus was saying that even before He spoke, in the past, God had given the "all" to Him. I can see how the Calvinist can readily say that this was God's deterministic election. I can also see how the "Arminian" would say that this is God's foreknowledge at play. I would like to hear how the open theist would answer. D. A. Carson commented that John was "a happy compatibilist".

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Paidion
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Re: Open Theism and the Scriptures

Post by Paidion » Tue May 15, 2018 10:09 pm

Hi Homer, you wrote:John 6:39 (NASB)
39. This is the will of Him who sent Me, that of all that He has given Me I lose nothing, but raise it up on the last day.
I would like to hear how the open theist would answer.
I don't think that statement of our Lord's has anything to do with Calvinism, Arminianism, or Open Theism.
As I see it, our Lord is saying, "All that the Father has given me (that is, all of my disciples) not one will stay dead (I will lose none of them) after they die, but on the last day, I will raise every one of them from death. All will live again!"

The very next verse confirms this interpretation:
40 For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who looks on the Son and believes in him should have eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day."
Paidion

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Homer
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Re: Open Theism and the Scriptures

Post by Homer » Wed May 16, 2018 11:05 am

Hi Paidion,

Here is another in support of foreknowledge:

John 10:16 (NASB)
16.I have other sheep, which are not of this fold; I must bring them also, and they will hear My voice; and they will become one flock with one shepherd.


Jesus "had" other sheep as he was speaking that had not yet become disciples. Aside from foreknowledge (the Calvinist would say election), how would He know He had them?

Also if you look at the context of John 6 he is addressing a crowd that appears to be mostly skeptics; His reference to "all" must have included those not presently His disciples, but all who would ever be saved, past and future.

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