I have no problem with your ideas, but I can't get away from Paul's wording. Every literal translation that I can find (e.g., NASB, ESV, NKJV, NET Bible, Young's Literal Translation) translates the verb in 2 Corinthians 3:18 in a progressive sense: "we all...
are being transformed." If Paul is talking about himself and Timothy, and about a transition that occurred at the time of their conversion from Judaism, in what sense was that still progressing at the time of writing?
In view of the fact that Paul, speaking on the same subject of "the glory" just 16 verses later (2 Cor.4:16-17), speaks unambiguously of an ongoing process, I think we have a contextual lock on his meaning.
When Paul wants to speak of a once-for-all transition occurring at conversion, he knows how to use the proper verb tenses—as in Colossians 1:13*—"[God]
has delivered us from the power of darkness, and
has translated us into the kingdom of His dear Son." By the way, in the previous context of Colossians 1:3-10, Paul has also distinguished between "we" and "you." However, "you" (in verse 10) becomes "us" (verse 12), so that, in verses 12-14, "us" and "we" seem to include all Christians, including the readers.
If Paul were making your point, in 2 Corinthians 3:18, then, not only the verb tense, but his choice of the verb itself "metamorphosized" or "transformed" would seem less appropriate than would a word like "relegated," "reassigned," or "transferred," or some such. Metamorphosis is a process, not a punctiliar event. In what sense does your idea involve Paul and Timothy in a momentary metamorphosis from one glory to another? If your view is correct, then the two "glories" are objective domains—not subjective states.
I am very aware of the interpretation you are bringing to 2 Corinthians 3:18, and I once seriously considered it, but I could not escape the four considerations I presented in my first posting (remember those?). By the way, while I have heard your very sensible arguments for your interpretation, I would be interested in hearing your rebuttal of my four arguments—with the addition of those raised in this post. Paul's (and indeed the whole New Testament's) use of "glory" (e.g., 2 Cor.4:17) seems to fit my analysis. How does Paul's use of "glory" (
doxa) better fit yours?
Just keeping the ball rolling here, since you asked for feedback.
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* For additional examples of Paul using correct verb tenses when describing past conversions, see also:Acts 19:2; Gal.2:20; 5:24; 6:14; Eph.1:13; 2:5-6, 8, 13; Col.3:3, 9-10; 1 Thess.1:5,9; etc.