Which of the two political groups are more or less closely aligned with "God's side" on policy matters (e.g. slavery) is not the point - but nonetheless I will address that issue later. I believe the relevant point in applying Romans 13 to this situation is whether one or both sides had been authorized by God to rule. I'm pretty sure that you would agree that God authorizes wicked men and political systems to come to power and rule more often than not. Consider, for example, the behavior of Nero and other Romans emperors in Paul's time, or among modern States that there are those that operate by bribery, impose socialism, communism, or Sharia law. If God has authorized such States to come to power, then He is most definitely "on their side" in the sense of having them be established to be the ruling power (not in the sense that He agrees with particular political policies of that power). If He has authorized them to rule, regardless of the righteousness of their policies, then it logically follows that He has also authorizes them to exert the violence necessary to achieve or maintain that power. I would like to know this - Is it your opinion that the Confederacy was a power authorized by God to rule in the South, for a span of several years, or did God not authorize this power? If you affirm the power was authorized then I believe it necessarily follows, from the principles of your view, that John Wilkes Booth must be exonerated. Attributing labels of a "terrorist", a "coward", or "beliefs did not coincide with scripture" to Booth are not relevant in applying Romans 13 to this situation, nor is the fact that Lincoln was unarmed and temporarily had deficient personal security. On the other hand, if you deny that it was a power authorized by God, then I have to ask how that should be reconciled with the statement you made in another thread which is quoted below. Do you consider the Confederacy to have had no authority at all? How could the existence of the Confederacy as a ruling power, but with no authority, be reconciled with Romans 13:1?Dwight wrote:Which side was God on - or which side was on God's side?
Coming back the issue of slavery, I would like to bring up this statement from the "Upcoming Election" thread.Dwight wrote:If God wanted to show us that there is a difference between "valid" authority and "invalid" authority, then He could have used those terms in the Bible, but He does not
Does it violate God's word for a person to be involuntarily enslaved by the decree of a ruler? For me, nothing comes immediately to mind from the scripture that could be used to affirm that it is sin to be subjected to slavery. Is making full or partial slaves of some men within the limits of a rulers God given jurisdiction? After all, a ruler is not causing men to sin by doing this, and men declared by the ruling power to be slaves are instructed to submit to that ruler per the interpretation I've quoted above (and the premise it is not a sin to be enslaved). I'm wondering how you would refute the assertion that the government of the South was acting within its God given limits of authority by making black men slaves. If it was acting within the jurisdiction that God gave to the State, then its actions of making blacks (or any other arbitrary group) subject to slavery are not worthy of blame on a biblical basis.Dwight wrote: My first thought is we should [obey any ruler] until they tell us to do something that violates God's word. But that would be the same for any ruler.
Pete