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bias in bible translation?

bias in bible translation?

Postby 21centpilgrim » Fri Jun 16, 2017 3:41 pm

A little venting here, but why in Rom. 9:16
So then it depends not on human will or exertion, but on God, who has mercy. ESV

The context of what 'it' means is mercy , compassion and election.
However, the word 'depends' is added to the verse and Calvinist love to quote this as one of their proof texts, heck I did when I was a 5 pointer. the sad part is that it is not just the ESV that does this here, NLT, NIV, Holman, NET, NASB and RSV all insert 'depends'.

Without the addition the passage still makes sense and reads fine but has lesser weight for the Calvinist viewpoint. Other translations "So then it is not of him who wills, nor of him who runs, but of God who shows mercy."
This gets at the actual textual meaning that mercy, compassion, election salvation in general originates and comes from God and not man but does not limit salvation being affected by man's response.
'Depends' makes a stronger case taking any of man's potential response completely out of the equation.

this is just one example of many translation biases. It really is disheartening to find out these kinds of blatant biases.

The hard part is when I bring this up to people and other instances, then I am a trouble maker and disturber of the peace.

Any help?

thanks
Then those who feared the LORD spoke with each other, and the LORD listened to what they said. In his presence, a scroll of remembrance was written to record the names of those who feared him and loved to think about him.
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