This is no problem that he would give a similar discourse “almost verbatim” as you say. It is a pattern in the Scriptures; Matthew 13 is a case in point to address the missing evidence. Mark 4:34 also provides that pattern. It sounds as if to me you are not recognizing these connections that others appear to recognize.First, it seems very unlikely that Luke 21 is a different discourse, given to an broader audience than the discourse described in Matthew 24 and Mark 13. This suggests that Jesus gave the same discourse, almost verbatim, twice the same day--once to His disciples, and once to the crowd (which included His disciples). None of the gospels tell us that He gave a rerun of the sermon to His disciples in private (though He could have done so, we cannot assume it from any of the evidence in the gospels).
Of course, I agree with you that excessive detail regarding the movements of Jesus might have been too much. And I find it nice that you do admit that Luke does not mention anywhere in his account that Jesus ever left the Temple. However, I disagree with you that you that “night” is not also implied with “private” particularly in how Luke phrased things in Luke 21:37-38. What I find more odd, is that Luke, whose method is set in Luke 1:1-4 would run these two teaching together. Furthermore, it is even more odd, that he feels that he has some sort of interpretive license to define what Jesus said at armies Jerusalem, when Jesus never once mentioned Jerusalem.Second, Luke does not affirm that the discourse he records was given in the temple. True, the events of chapter 20 through 21:6 occurred there, but there is no reason that Luke or the other writers must tell us of every movement of Jesus from one location to another...and, in fact, they do not. Matthew and Mark do not tell us anything about it being night when Jesus gave the discourse to the disciples recorded in those books. I have never gotten the impression that this was the case from studying them, so the idea that Luke 21 was uttered in the daytime is not in conflict with its identification with the discourse in the synoptic parallels. The last two verses of Luke 21 don't appear to be commenting on the venue of this particular discourse, but rather seem to be making a statement of Jesus' habits during the passion week in general.
You say that it would be OK if Luke 21 was uttered in the day time, but how can this be said in light of Luke specifically saying the contrary in the same chapter at the end of the very discourse we are discussing? And I also find the response making Luke 21:37-38 a “filler” describing Jesus habits quite artificial when you originally said in your response that providing excessive detail regarding Jesus’ movements does not need to be in the narrative.
I agree with you regarding certain narrative variations between the synoptic Gospels because it is largely due to the various view of people. I cited in my earlier response the example of Bartimaeus the blind beggar who Peter knew as recorded in Mark 10:46 and Matthew 20:29-34 did not know and simply mentioned that there were two beggars.Third, the differences between the synoptic accounts of the discourse are not greater than the degree to which the authors differ in wording from each other, for example, in telling of the healing of the man with the withered hand, or the relating of the parable of the sower, or many other parallel material. Even the question of the disciples in Matt.24:3 and Mark 13:4 (which you and I agree to be parallels) is worded very differently between these two gospels.
And I agree with you to the level of similarity between the questions asked and that you have a point here. But then, if we are willing to gloss over the differences where will it stop? I suppose you’ve got a great answer as to how the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD aligns with the abomination of desolation in 168 BC. For in Matthew 24:15 Jesus specifically connects these two things in your view and holds them up as critical to truly understanding what He is saying. So how are armies and the desolation of Jerusalem like slaughtering a pig on the altar or setting up a statue of Olympus Zeus to be worshipped?
But then I find it equally plausible that Mark and Luke both record the original questions asked and Matthew the refined questions asked. Why do I say this? For one, I’ve already noted that the disciples that come to ask privately are the inner three plus Andrew, Peter’s brother. I assume that the reason why Andrew is there in the first place, is because he asked the original question. And since Mark is a record of what Peter often taught in Rome, I find it quite sensible that Peter would emphasize on his brother’s original question.
As I mentioned before, it is quite clear that the crowds were quite mixed. Let us not forget the “triumphal entry” as the crowds hailed his arrival. Mark emphasizes the aspect of the crowd (2:4, 2:13, 3:7. 3:8, 3:9, 3:20, 3:32, 4:1, 4:36, 5:21, 5:24, 5:27, 5:30, 5:31, 6:34, 6:45, 7:33, 8:1, 8:2, 8:6, 8:34, 9:14, 9:15, 9:17, 9:25, 10:46, 11:18, 14:43, 15:8, 15:11, 15:15) making the acknowledgement of a private discourse with Jesus even more special. It would be quite hard not to teach to the crowds unless as they numerously times withdrew away as Luke 21:37-38 explains as well.Fourth, the idea that Luke 21 was uttered to the crowds, rather than to the disciples privately (as was the case of Matthew 24 and Mark 13) does not seem to be correct, as there is too much in Luke 21 that would apply exclusively to the disciples (e.g., Luke 21:12-19, 28), and not to the crowds at all.
As I’ve mentioned before, there is no reason why to assume why Jesus would not say all of Luke 21 to the crowd. It has everything to do with His mission and explains what he has been publicly teaching all along. The question that should be asked is why would Jesus want to teach this privately and not publicly as Matthew and Mark specifically record?
I think I responded to this already as to why Mark would record Peter saying this and as to why Matthew’s record of the questions are refined and perhaps reflect “new” information: that all this is related to Jesus’ second coming that they first heard in Luke.Fifth, it would seem coincidental, to the point of strangeness, if the disciples had just heard Jesus give this discourse to the crowds (as per Luke 21), in response to the crowd's question: "When shall these things be? And what sign shall there be that these things are about to take place?" (Luke 21:7), and then they took Him aside and asked Him the exact same two questions (Mark 13:3-4), as if He had not just presented a full answer in their hearing.
So ultimately, you are saying that Luke’s account is more specific. I find that quite untenable considering that Matthew was a disciple and Mark is a record of Peter’s preaching while Luke is an investigative Gospel setting out to verify what they had been taught by the disciples in the first place . Of all these authors, Luke was likely the furthest from the actual sources. Mark actually records what Jesus may have said in Aramaic in a few places.Sixth, the discourses related in Matthew 24 and Mark 13 do not have the character of an explanation of Luke 21, but rather of a mere restatement of the same material--if anything, in more obscure language. Therefore, I am not inclined to see the former as a private explanation of the latter.
For you to make a statement like exposes the conflicts between these supposedly synoptic passages. I’ve already pointed out the differences between Luke 21:12 and Matthew 24:9. Is it before or is it after? Why does God allow both renditions in the Bible? Are we to guess at what Jesus actually said and what tense He meant? Of course we are to understand that individuals have different perspectives and they hear things differently, but differences such as before or after are pretty significant. The omission of mentioning Jerusalem in Matthew and Mark are also pretty significant.
As to specificity, I’m not even sure if one can say that Luke 21:20-24 is even on the same topic as Matthew 24:15-22. In one Jesus is talking about the desolation of Jerusalem and in the other Jesus is talking about the desolation of the Temple. One comes from the outside to destroy the inside, the other starts at the inside (the Temple) to go out and destroy what is outside as what happened in 168 BC as Daniel also foretold. These are all very different things; cutting times short is nothing like the time of the Gentiles.
This is another thing we can agree on because this discussion inextricably continues on into a discussion of Daniel 9:24-27 and to whether it was about destruction or restoration and what that means and how events of the past are foreshadows of the future.Your work on this subject is commendable, but you and I may be bringing different sets of presuppositions to the investigation Thanks for sharing.