Hebrews 11:11

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jarrod
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Hebrews 11:11

Post by jarrod » Wed Mar 31, 2010 8:32 am

Can anyone help me understand why there is such a difference between the translation chosen by the NIV and NASB/NKJV regarding Hebrews 11:11?
NIV - By faith Abraham, even though he was past age—and Sarah herself was barren—was enabled to become a father because he considered him faithful who had made the promise.
NASB - By faith even Sarah herself received ability to conceive, even beyond the proper time of life, since she considered Him faithful who had promised.
NKJV - By faith Sarah herself also received strength to conceive seed, and she bore a child when she was past the age, because she judged Him faithful who had promised.
Thanks

Jarrod

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darinhouston
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Re: Hebrews 11:11

Post by darinhouston » Wed Mar 31, 2010 9:35 am

See notes to NET translation. Looks like there are some inferences necessary from the sparse and sometimes indefinite original language.

NET 11:11 By faith, even though Sarah herself was barren and he was too old, 12 he received the ability to procreate, 13 because he regarded the one who had given the promise to be trustworthy.

13 tn Grk “power to deposit seed.” Though it is not as likely, some construe this phrase to mean “power to conceive seed,” making the whole verse about Sarah: “by faith, even though Sarah herself was barren and too old, she received ability to conceive, because she regarded the one who had given the promise to be trustworthy.”

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darinhouston
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Re: Hebrews 11:11

Post by darinhouston » Wed Mar 31, 2010 9:38 am

Very interesting topic -- more here:
http://lists.ibiblio.org/pipermail/b-greek/2009-April/048980.html wrote: [B-Greek] Translating Hebrews 11:11
Iver Larsen iver_larsen at sil.org
Wed Apr 29 11:40:48 EDT 2009

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----- Original Message -----
From: "Tom Moore" <tom at katabiblon.com>
To: "Daniel Buck" <bucksburg at yahoo.com>; <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: 29. april 2009 03:08
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Translating Hebrews 11:11


>I don't think there are any substantive differences in the variants listed.

Even though the UBS/NA text has included STEIRA, NA25 did not include it, and NA26/27 were ill
advised to put it in, IMO. I am not saying this to initiate a TC discussion, only as a background
for my adjustment of and comments on the text below. However, it doesn't influence the question of
who is subject, Abraham or Sarah.

>
> The question of who the subject is, seems to hinge on the expression DUNAMIN EIS KATABOLHN
> SPERMATOS ELABEN. There are a couple of threads in the archives discussing Heb. 11:11, dating back
> to Sep. 2001 and Dec. 2000.
>
> Πίστει καὶ αὐτὴ Σάρρα [στεῖρα] δύναμιν εἰς καταβολὴν σπέρματος ἔλαβεν καὶ παρὰ καιρὸν ἡλικίας,
> ἐπεὶ πιστὸν ἡγήσατο τὸν ἐπαγγειλάμενον.
> PISTEI KAI AUTH SARRA [STEIRA] DUNAMIN EIS KATABOLHN SPERMATOS ELABEN KAI PARA KAIRON hHLIKIAS,
> EPEI PISTON hHGHSATO TON EPAGGEILAMENON. (Hebrews 11:11)
>
> Both BDAG and Metzger comment that it is used of the male role, not the female, in which case any
> apparent ambiguity disappears; it also clears up the last part of the verse, since Genesis doesn't
> seem to me to support the idea that it was Sarah who counted the one who had promised as faithful.
> (Not everyone in the threads agree that the expression is reserved for the male role, nor
> obviously do some very competent translators, such as those of the ESV.)

KATABOLH is used 11 times in the NT. 10 times it occurs with KOSMOS and refers to the "laying down"
or "foundation" of the world. It could well have a similar meaning of "foundation" in Heb 11:11.

SPERMA is commonly used as metonym referring to "offspring, descendant(s)". It is usually connected
with a man, and expressions like SPERMA ABRAAM and SPERMA DAVID are common. However, it is connected
with a woman in Rev 12:17, but the woman here is a metaphor, so it may not carry much weight. In any
case, the reference is not to literal seed, but to the posterity. (See below for LXX references.)

EIS indicates a result, so that DUNAMIN EIS KATABOLHN SPERMATOS ELABEN means that he/she received
power towards or resulting in the foundation/laying down of offspring. This does not tell us whether
the subject is he or she, since both parties are needed for the founding of a line of descendants.
BAGD suggests that the normal translation "foundation" is also possible for this verse. Has that
been changed in BDAG? The t.t. definition in BAGD and BDAG appears to be completely alien to and
irrelevant for the NT and LXX.

Looking at the whole clause:
PISTEI KAI AUTH SARRA DUNAMIN EIS KATABOLHN SPERMATOS ELABEN
it seems reasonable that Sara should be the subject. Abraham was the subject for verses 8-10,
introduced by name in v. 8. In these "By faith" constructions, the subject is introduced by name
near the beginning of the sentence. The KAI refers to addition and may indicate that not only did
Abraham do something by faith, but Sarah herself also did something. If we take the dative option
AUTHi SARRAi meaning that Abraham with Sarah fathered a son, then the KAI is out of place.

The next clause KAI PARA KAIRON hHLIKIAS gives an added reason for why Sarah needed faith to be part
of the process of bringing forth descendants.

Even though Sarah was incredulous in the beginning, she turned around and accepted to become
pregnant and later bear a son, so she, too, showed faith. To have the subject shift between Abraham
and Sarah in the verse is very strange and the reader would not have enough clues to follow such
shifts.

So, as a translator, I have opted for the choice of Sarah as subject like REB, CEV, NLT, ESV and
others, because that makes most sense of the Greek text and context.

>
> Here are a few of the pertinent links:
> http://lists.ibiblio.org/pipermail/b-gr ... 18267.html
> http://lists.ibiblio.org/pipermail/b-gr ... 18266.html
> http://lists.ibiblio.org/pipermail/b-gr ... 14501.html
> http://lists.ibiblio.org/pipermail/b-gr ... 14509.html
> http://lists.ibiblio.org/pipermail/b-gr ... 14500.html
>
> Excerpts from the above links from both sides of the discussions, incl. BDAG and Metzger, are
> here: http://forums.katabiblon.com/topic.php?tid=21.

Looking at these posts it seems to me that they wrongly assume that SPERMA is used in the literal
sense of English sperm, which is very unlikely when the normal sense is the metonym of posterity in
the context of the Bible. The corresponding Hebrew word is used for both plant seeds in the OT and
offspring of both a female and male genitive. (e.g. the famous Gen 3:15, but also other places like
4:25, 16:10, 24:60). This is not a problem, since it does not refer to "sperm" but to "offspring,
posterity" in these contexts. In fact, when the reference is to "sperm" in the LXX, it is
consistenly rendered KOITH SPERMATOS, never SPERMATOS alone and never in connection with PARABOLH.
(See LEV 15:16, 17, 18, 32, LEV 18:20, LEV 19:20, LEV 22:4, NUM 5:13, WIS 3:16).

Iver Larsen

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jarrod
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Re: Hebrews 11:11

Post by jarrod » Wed Mar 31, 2010 10:43 am

darinhouston wrote: 13 tn Grk “power to deposit seed.” Though it is not as likely, some construe this phrase to mean “power to conceive seed,” making the whole verse about Sarah: “by faith, even though Sarah herself was barren and too old, she received ability to conceive, because she regarded the one who had given the promise to be trustworthy.”
Now I am no Greek scholar, and most of the article you posted is above my head, but it would appear that the power to 'conceive' would have a more natural meaning for Sarah than Abraham? The 'power to deposit seed' wouldn't have much meaning unless he was *really* decrepit, but the power to conceive would be something God gave to Sarah to produce a fertile womb. I think my preferred translation at this point would be the NASB/NKJV. Am I missing something?

steve7150
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Re: Hebrews 11:11

Post by steve7150 » Wed Mar 31, 2010 11:29 am

[quote="jarrod"]
darinhouston wrote: 13 tn Grk “power to deposit seed.” Though it is not as likely, some construe this phrase to mean “power to conceive seed,” making the whole verse about Sarah: “by faith, even though Sarah herself was barren and too old, she received ability to conceive, because she regarded the one who had given the promise to be trustworthy.”


Now I am no Greek scholar, and most of the article you posted is above my head, but it would appear that the power to 'conceive' would have a more natural meaning for Sarah than Abraham? The 'power to deposit seed' wouldn't have much meaning unless he was *really* decrepit, but the power to conceive would be something God gave to Sarah to produce a fertile womb. I think my preferred translation at this point would be the NASB/NKJV. Am I missing something?[/quote]







I agree that it's about Sarah and her faith that God may have rejuvenated her, because did'nt the Pharoah want to make her part of his harem which would suggest Sarah's youth was actually renewed by God.

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jarrod
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Re: Hebrews 11:11

Post by jarrod » Thu Apr 08, 2010 12:32 pm

Just thought I would post a followup since I was going through one of Steve's lectures and he mentioned this verse...

Foundations of the Christian Faith - Faith Toward God (Part 1) @ 10:05

Jarrod

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steve
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Re: Hebrews 11:11

Post by steve » Fri Apr 09, 2010 1:37 am

My comments there were based merely on my checking in the interlinear Greek/English New Testament, not on any sophisticated analysis of the Greek grammar—something which I am not qualified to conduct. The word for word reading in the interlinear seemed to support that it was talking about Sarah. I later read some of the grammatical discussions in commentaries, which raised questions on the matter in my mind. Now I am not so certain.

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