Both of you brothers (Jaydam & Doug) are making excellent points. Jaydam, I would like to address the 1 Th 4:16-17 concern. I'm an audience relevance and time statement type of guy in order to learn, from scripture, what the intended outcome should be. What we are talking about is the integrity of the Holy Spirit to 100% get it right when speaking through "The Apostles". Here are some questions concerning this particular passage:jaydam wrote:I would agree that nothing remains to be fulfilled from the Olivet Discourse, because I see no reference to the 2nd coming in them.
As for the descriptions of the 2nd coming that I believe still remain to be fulfilled, that would include 1Th 4:16-17 and Rev 20:7 to the end of the book.
If the Lord's coming in 70 AD (from Mt) is to be perceived as his 2nd coming, then why is it only THAT coming that is considered his 2nd coming? From what I read in the Bible, the Lord has come many times (in judgment), therefore, his coming in 70 AD could really be seen as his 6th, 7th, or 8th coming. Why is it, out of all the times we hear of the Lord coming, we would choose to only count his personal appearance as a human being and the 70 AD event as his first and second coming?
1. Was or WAS NOT Paul specifically addressing the believers in Thessalonica?
2. Was or were THEY NOT being persecuted for their belief in Yeshua?
3. Did or DID NOT Paul promise THEM relief from this persecution?
4. Did or DID NOT Paul promise THEM that relief would come by Yeshua's return?
5. Where in the CONTEXT does it EVER speak of another time, place, and people?
Let's not discuss "The Nature" of events at this point. Concentrate on the emphatic time statements.
God Bless?